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Re: Antitrust Bill of Rights

  On Sat, 29 Nov 1997 14:55:39 -0500 (EST) wfcooper@tiac.com (Bill Cooper)
  >On Fri, 28 Nov 1997 17:08:25 +0000, antimonopoly@juno.com (Ralph
  >Anspach) wrote:
  >>Ralph writes:
  >>I hear you.  The interesting question is why Congress,  which is to 
  >>extent at least,  response to the public,  hasn't abolished or 
  >>the antitrust laws. So there must be some constitutency out there for
  >>fair competition.  Why is it being done by the courts?
  >I would say, in response, that as long as Congress is satisfied with
  >the result (the practical repeal of anit-trust), why should they
  >bother to officially repeal them?
  >	Perhaps you mean to ask why the courts got to the job first?
  >I think that the judicial branch always reflects elite opinion more
  >perfectly than the popular branches of government.  Since effective
  >anti-trust regimes inherently reduce the ability of elites to control
  >the economy, elite institutions and power centers will be stronger in
  >their opposition to them.
  >Bill Cooper
  Ralph writes:
  Makes sense.  Next question.  So why didn't the elites control the courts
  up to about 1975 re antitrust.  Do we really have to wait till the elites
  once again maneuver the system into an almost collapse before things will
  change?  I hope not. What else can be done aside from waiting for the
  next big depression?