[Am-info] Wal-Mart
John Poltorak
jp@eyup.org
Sun, 3 Mar 2002 12:36:53 +0000
On Sat, Mar 02, 2002 at 08:56:42AM -0800, T.Guilbert wrote:
> In a message dated 2002 March 02 (Saturday), timestamp 10:42 AM,
> on the topic Re: [Am-info] Wal-Mart [WAS: The Wallmart PC],
> "Erick Andrews" <eandrews@star.net> wrote:
>
> "|>you sell 10,000 PCs with Microsoft installed, your per-processor
> "|>charge is X dollars, total Microsoft tax: 10,000X. if you sell 9,999
> "|>PCs with Microsoft installed, and one PC bare or with another OS, your
> "|>per-processor charge is (X+Y), total Microsoft tax: 9,999(X+Y).
>
> "|What the definition of "Y" here? Some fraction of "X"?
>
> "|If so, would you know if it's typically greater or less than 1?
>
> First, I should note that this CPU charge is nominally the only thing
> that the original FTC consent decree prescribed. (It is widely
> thought that Microsoft continued the practice thereafter, in minimal
> disguise.) IIRC back about nine years ago, a friend who ran a
> computer assembly operation said that, for his purchases, X was about
> $30 and X+Y about $50, but my recollection may be faulty.
Is it possible to verify this practice?
After all that has gone on in the anti-trust trial some indication of the
values X and Y imposed by Microsoft must have emerged somewhere.
It's clear to me that the per-processor license agreement is still in
place even though it was declared illegal all those years ago.
Why doesn't anyone raise it as an issue?
>
> --
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John