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Re: bundling is inherently unfair to consumers
Norm wrote:
>
> On Tue, 14 Dec 1999 00:27:38 -0500 (EST), Lewis A. Mettler wrote:
>
> >> > In summary, it is simply not possible to say _truthfully_
> >> > that bundling is _always_ harmful to consumers.
> >>
> >> I expect Lewis will clarify this, but my impression is that when he
> >> says "bundling" he means force-bundling.
> >
> >If the tires only come with a pound of beef, then it would be a bundle.
> >
> >And, of course, all vegetarians would really complain.
> >
> >However, the real fallacy in the example is caused by the fact that the
> >tire company does not have a monopoly at all. No tire company does.
> >And, as I recall, the example did not say that tires were only sold with
> >the pound of beef. If it is only a come-on then that might be
> >advertising.
> >
>
> AH..HA!!! So now you're *FINALLY* getting it (albeit probably
> without realizing it yourself). You've been arguing about how *ALL* or
> *ANY* bundling is harmful to consumers (and have even gone as far as to
> claim it's against some unwritten 'consumer right'), but now you've
> qualified it by stating that it's different when done by a
> monopolist...with *THIS* I can agree. This distinction (a monopolist)
> is the defining issue, but to use it as an example for non-monopolistic
> products is to engage in what we use to call 'pseudo-deductive
> reasoning'.
Why did it take this long to get this out of him?
>
> --
> ...Cheers,
>
> ...Norm
>
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--
Until later: Geoffrey esoteric@denali.atlnet.com
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