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Re: bundling (again)
"Lewis A. Mettler" wrote:
> Let me say it again in simple English, "bundling is inherently unfair to
> consumers".
>
> If for any reason you do not think so or can not understand that obvious
> observation, then please explain how bundling is fair. That is
> precisely what I have been trying to get others to do for the last
> "whatever period of time". When NO ONE does that, I begin to assume
> that bundling is in fact "inherently unfair to consumers".
Is that all consumers? If so, then a contradiction can be shown by
finding a consumer to whom bundling is fair. Bundling applications
with an operating system is fair to those consumers who want the
functionality of all elements of the bundle. Therefore, bundling is not
inherently unfair to all consumers.
Are there consumers for which bundling is unfair? Yes. But your
generalization is not justified.
If you mean that "bundling is inherently unfair for some consumers", I
would say that the fairness is not inherent to the bundling, since it is
not universal. So your generalization is not justified.
--Joe
--
IBM's vision is apparently to make IBM hardware "scream with Microsoft
software" --The Register,
http://www.theregister.co.uk/990927-000003.html
I have visions of screaming with (at and about) Microsoft software, too.